Unified State Exam. English language. Grammar and vocabulary. Romanova L.I.

M.: 20 10 . - 224 s.

This manual contains practice test tasks to prepare for the third section of the Unified State Exam in English “Grammar and Vocabulary”. The purpose of the examination test in this section is to test the skills of using grammatical and lexical material in texts with a communicative orientation. The tests are designed in accordance with the specifications developed by the Federal Institute of Educational Measurements and include three types of items: a basic level item testing grammatical skills, an advanced level item testing word formation skills, and a high level item testing vocabulary skills.

The book is addressed to teachers who can use both individual tasks from tests and entire tests in class lessons so that students get an idea of ​​the form of the Unified State Exam and the necessary work experience to successfully pass it. Students can use this guide whether they are in their senior year or want to start preparing for the exam earlier.

A clear structure and simple design will allow both the student and the teacher to use the manual in accordance with their individual needs. Having keys will be convenient for students to work independently.

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CONTENT
Preface 3
Part one. Demo version of the Unified State Exam in English 9
Section 1. Listening 9
Section 2. Reading 13
Section 3. Grammar and vocabulary 19
Section 4. Letter 22
Appendix 1. Texts for listening 24
Appendix 2. Answers 30
Part two. Grammar and vocabulary (Tasks B4-B10). 32
Part three. Grammar and vocabulary (Tasks B11-B16) 69
Part four. Grammar and vocabulary (Tasks A22-A28) 108
Appendix 1. Word formation. Prefixes 151
Appendix 2. Word formation. Spelling 154
Appendix 3. Word formation. Suffixes 159
Noun suffixes 159
Adjective suffixes 173
Adverb suffix 184
Verb suffixes 188
Appendix 4. Phrasal verbs 191
Part five. Keys 206

Walking is not enough to keep fit

Walking may not be enough on its own to produce significant health benefits, research suggests. A team from Canada’s University of Alberta compared a 10,000-step exercise program with a more traditional fitness regime of moderate intensity. Researchers found improvements 1 _______________________ were significantly higher in the second group. They told an American College of Sports Medicine meeting that gentle exercise was 2 _______________________ . In total 128 people took 3 _______________________ . The researchers assessed influence on fitness by measuring blood pressure and lung capacity. They found out the 10,000-step program did help to get people motivated – and was an excellent way to start 4 _______________________ . But to increase the effectiveness, some intensity must be added to their exercise. “Across your day, while you are achieving those 10,000 steps, take 200 to 400 of them at a faster pace. You"ve got to do more than light exercise and include regular moderate activity, and don"t be shy to have an occasional period of time at an energetic level.” The researchers were concerned there was too much focus 5 _______________________ , rather than on its intensity.

Professor Stuart Biddle, an expert in exercise science at the University of Loughborough, said it was possible that the current guidelines on how much exercise to take were set too low. “However, you have got to find 6 _______________________ . The harder you make it, the fewer people will actually do it.” Professor Biddle said there was no doubt that energetic exercise was the way to get fit, but volume rather than intensity might be more useful in tackling issues such as obesity.

A. part in the project

B. taking exercise

C. gave marked health benefits

D. in fitness levels

E. on simply getting people to take exercise

F. not enough to get fit

G. a compromise between physiology and psychology

A Gifted Cook

If there is a gene for cuisine, Gabe, my 11-year-old son, could splice it to perfection. Somewhere between Greenwich Village, where he was born, and the San Francisco Bay area, where he has grown up, the little kid with the stubborn disposition and freckles on his nose has forsaken Boy Scouts and baseball in favor of wielding a kitchen knife.

I suppose he is a member of the Emeril generation. Gabe has spent his formative years shopping at the Berkeley Bowl, where over half a dozen varieties of Thanksgiving yams, in lesser mortals, can instill emotional paralysis. He is blessed with a critical eye. “I think Emeril is really cheesy,” he observed the other night while watching a puff pastry segment. “He makes the stupidest jokes.” But he cooks really well.”

With its manifold indigenous cultures, Oaxaca seemed the perfect place to push boundaries. Like the mole sauces for which it is justly famous, the region itself is a subtle blend of ingredients – from dusty Zapotec villages where Spanish is a second language to the zocalo in colonial Oaxaca, a sophisticated town square brimming with street life and vendors selling twisty , one-story-tall balloons.

Appealing to Gabe’s inner Iron Chef seemed like an indirect way to introduce him to a place where the artful approach to life presides. There was also a selfish motive: Gabe is my soul mate, a fellow food wanderer who is not above embracing insanity to follow his appetite wherever it leads.

Months ahead of time, we are enrolled via the Internet in the daylong Wednesday cooking class at Seasons of My Heart, the chef and cookbook author Susana Trilling’s cooking school in the Elta Valley, about a 45-minute drive north to town. In her cookbook and PBS series of the same name, Ms. Trilling, an American whose maternal grandparents were Mexican, calls Oaxaca “the land of no waste” where cooking techniques in some ancient villages have endured for a thousand years.

I suspected that the very notion of what constitutes food in Oaxaca would test Gabe’s broom. At the suggestion of Jacob, his older brother, we spent our second night in Mexico at a Oaxaca Guerrero baseball game, where instead of peanuts and Cracker Jack, vendors hawked huge trays piled high with chapulines, fried grasshoppers cooked in chili and lime, a local delicacy. Gabe was bug-eyed as he watched the man next to him snack on exoskeletal munchies in a paper bowl. “It’s probably less gross than a hot dog,” he admitted. “But on the rim of the bowl I saw a bunch of legs and served body parts. That’s revolting!”

Our cooking day began at the Wednesday market in Etla, shopping for ingredients and sampling as we went. On the way in the van, Gabe had made friends with Cindy and Fred Beams, fellow classmates from Boston, sharing opinions about Caesar salad and bemoaning his brother’s preference for plain pizza instead of Hawaiian. Cindy told Gabe about a delicious sauce she’d just had on her omelet at her B & B. “It was the best sauce – to die for,” she said. “Then I found out the provenance. Roasted worms.”

The Oaxacan taste for insects, we’d learn – including the worm salt spied at the supermarket and the “basket of fried locusts” at a nearby restaurant – was a source of protein dating back to pre-Hispanic times.

When our cooking class was over I saw a flicker of regret in his face, as though he sensed the world’s infinite variety and possibilities in all the dishes he didn’t learn to cook. “Mom,” he said plaintively, surveying the sensual offerings of the table. “Can we make everything when we get home?”

1. Gabe's mother thinks that he is

2. Gabe is supposed to represent the Emeril generation because he

A) is fond of criticizing others.

B) feels happy being alone.

C) is interested in cooking.

D) is good at making jokes.

3. The narrator wanted to take Gabe to Oaxaca because

A) he could speak Spanish.

B) there are a lot of entertainments for children there.

C) he knew a lot about local cultures.

D) he was the best to keep her company.

4. Gabe was struck when he

A) was told that local cooking techniques were a thousand years old.

B) saw the man next to him eat insects.

C) did not find any dish to satisfy his appetite.

D) understood that a hot dog was less gross than a local delicacy.

5. The Oaxacan people eat insects because this kind of food

A) tastes pleasant.

B) is easy to cook.

C) contains an essential nutritional element.

D) helps to cure many diseases.

6. At the end of the class Gabe felt regret because

A) there were a lot of dishes he could not make on his own.

B) the dishes he made were not tasty.

C) he did not want to go back home.

D) he had not managed to master all the dishes he liked.

7. In paragraph 3 “brimming with” means

B) being filled with.

C) astonishing with.

D) backing with.

A. Personal style in a uniform

B. Old but dear

C. Get a holiday spirit

D. Dance competition

E. A hobby that carries away

F. Meaning without words

G. The number is not guilty

H. Yes to school uniform

1. Dance is in my heart, in my blood and in my mind. I dance daily. The rarely-used dining room of my house is now an often-used ballroom. The CD-changer has five discs at the ready: waltz, rock-and-roll, swing, salsa, and tango. Tango is a complex and difficult dance. I take three dancing lessons a week, and I am off to Buenos Aires for three months to feel the culture of tango.

2. Clothes play an important role in my life. My passion for fashion began when I was in elementary school. I attended a private school with uniformed dress code. At first I felt bad that I could not wear what I wanted, but soon I learned to display my creativity and style through shoes and accessories. They can make each of us each of us unique, in a uniform or not.

3. I believe that music has a bigger place in our society than it is given credit for. The single word ‘music’ covers so many styles. Rock bands and classical musicians make listeners get the meaning from the music. Music tells stories about life and death, expresses feelings of love, sadness, anger, guilt, and pain without using words.

4. Even as an eighteen year old young adult, I still feel the magic of Christmas. I believe in a real Christmas tree. My family has had a real Christmas tree every year of my life. When you get home and smell the sweet pine needles, something magical goes into your soul, raises your spirits. Every year we buy a real tree to fully embrace the spirit of Christmas.

5. People often try to get rid of the number thirteen. Many hotels and office buildings across the world do not have a 13th floor! I believe that the number thirteen is not an unlucky number. I was born on January, 13 and do not consider myself unlucky in any way at all! I believe that this number should have all the rights and respect we give the rest of the numbers.

6. Many kids that go to public schools don’t wear a uniform. They like to show off the new expensive clothes and often have trouble picking out outfits for school in the morning. They are more worried about whether their shirt matches the belt, rather than if the homework is completed. I believe that this is a fault of our school system and only causes problems.

7. They say that the music of your youth is the soundtrack of your life. I am 50; I enjoy new artists and new music, but I still find words of wisdom in singles of sixties and seventies, still believe that "you can"t always get what you want, but sometimes, you get what you need," that "all you need is love." I like to listen to the songs I grew up with.

Beginning of the form

End of form

Searching for a New Program

A healthy lifestyle can vastly improve your well-being. This is a lifestyle designed for those who wish to feel more certain about their health and more in control of what the present and future will bring them in that important 1 ______ of existence. None of us wants to be sick. None of us enjoys the idea that we may become a medical statistic. This is a simple, easy-to-follow health-style that can enable you to get cards very much in your 2 ______. The doctors were fortunate enough to come into 3 ______ with a field of study that brought them to healing and well-being that they so desperately needed. They personally have 4 ______ thousands of people improve their health using only a small part of information. Many more people begin to improve their health now. Embracing the most current information from many health-related fields, the program of healthy lifestyle gives you an understanding of the impact of exercise, breathing, sunshine, sleep and much more on your health. In order for this program to work for you, you have to be willing to apply at least some part of it. Some change will be 5 ______. And as you make those first modest changes, you will get positive results that encourage you to do more. Changing is fun. And if you realize that your new healthy lifestyle 6 ______ the making of new habits, not the 7 ______ of old ones, you will feel very positive about what the future holds for you.

1. A) sector B) region C) area D) territory

2. A) benefit B) advantage C) privilege D) favor

3. A) touch B) contact C) view D) connection

4. A) confessed B) witnessed C) determined D) recognized

5. A) ordered B) commanded C) forced D) required

6. A) contains B) consists C) involves D) encloses

7. A) breaking B) damaging C) ruining D) destroying

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Daniel and Diana Daniel and Diana were good friends. They had majored in economics at Bristol University in the early 1980s. Then Daniel met Rachel, who had arrived a year after them, and fell in love with her at first A22 ______. In Rachel he found everything he was looking A23 ______ in a wife. They married the day he graduated, and after they returned from their honeymoon, David took over the management of his father’s farm in Bedfordshire. Three children followed in quick succession, and Diana was proud when she was asked to be godmother to Sophie, the eldest. Daniel and Rachel had been married for twelve years; they A24 ______ ever quarelled. A25 ______ married couples were so happy. A26 ______ Diane was regularly asked to spend the weekend with them in the country, she only accepted one invitation out of three. She would have liked to join them more often, but since her divorce she had no desire to take advantage of their hospitality. Diane felt tired. She A27 ______ her work, but it had been an awful week. Two had contracts fallen through, her son had been dropped from the school soccer team, and her daughter had never stopped A28 ______ her that her father didn’t mind her watching television when she ought to be doing her homework. “I will survive.” Diana smiled and thought about Daniel’s birthday. She had forgotten to get him a present.

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It had to be big – Louis’s court had 20,000 people, and Versailles __________________ the center of court life.

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You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Tom who writes: …Last week our family went to the famous Niagara Falls. It was my first visit there and it was fun! We enjoyed the weather and the splashes of falling water on our faces. It reminded us of our last rafting trip. Where can you see beautiful water sights in Russia, if at all? Have you ever gone rafting? What do you think about extreme sports in general? By the way, we are going to Greece this summer… Write a letter to Tom. – answer his questions – ask 3 questions about his trip to Greece

Comment on the following statement.

Every city and every town should have a zoo.

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND SCIENCE OF THE RF

FBGOU VPO "ORENBURG STATE PEDAGOGICAL UNIVERSITY"

INSTITUTE OF ADVANCED QUALIFICATIONS AND PROFESSIONAL RETRAINING OF EDUCATION WORKERS

GRADUATION WORK

Formation of strategies for completing text tasks

in the Unified State Exam format in English

(using the example of the “Reading” section)

Performed:

Sergeeva Anastasia Ivanovna, English teacher, MAOU "Mikhailovskaya Secondary School"

Supervisor: Repina Nadezhda Anatolyevna, associate professor, candidate of pedagogical sciences

Orenburg, 2015

Explanatory note................................................... ................................1-13

Set of exercises........................................................ ................................14-50

List of sources used......................................................... ...............51

Application................................................. ........................................................ 52-57

Explanatory note

In the well-known Council of Europe document “Common European Framework of Reference for Foreign Languages: Learning, Teaching, Assessment,” competence is defined as the sum of knowledge, skills and personal qualities that enable a person to perform various actions. The Unified State Exam (USE) in English makes it possible to determine the level of participants' mastery of the federal state standard of secondary (complete) general education in the field of foreign language communicative competence. It is assumed that students of general education schools must achieve level B1 of foreign language communicative competence (common European terminology), and students of schools with in-depth study of a foreign language, gymnasiums and lyceums - level B2.

Relevance of the topic

The prospect of the Unified State Examination in English becoming compulsory;

Reading is an integral part of the Unified State Exam. In this regard, reading occupies a significant place in modern educational and methodological complexes in the English language at all stages of education. The “Reading” section is a voluminous activity in the Unified State Examination, which assesses reading ability. Reading is a difficult type of speech activity.

Problem The fact is that an analysis of the results of preparation for the Unified State Exam shows that 50% of students find it difficult to complete the “Reading” section, in particular the search section. Therefore, it is necessary to teach students to work with texts at a higher level. All of the above determined the topic of the work: “Formation of strategies for completing text tasks in the Unified State Exam format in English (using the example of the “Reading” section).”

Object of study: preparing secondary school students for the Unified State Exam.

Subject of study: preparation for passing the Unified State Exam “Reading” section.

The purpose of this work– theoretically substantiate the types of reading and develop a system of exercises that contributes to the most effective preparation of students for the successful completion of Unified State Examination tasks in the “Reading” section.

The main tasks of the work are:

characterize the types of reading as a type of speech activity;

develop a system of exercises for working with texts;

Specification of control measuring materials for the Unified State Examination in English

1. Purpose of the examination paper

Control measuring materials make it possible to establish the level of mastery by graduates of the Federal component of the state educational standard of basic general and secondary (complete) general education.

The results of the unified state exam in a foreign language are recognized by general educational institutions that implement educational programs of secondary (complete) general education as the results of state (final) certification, and by educational institutions of secondary vocational education and educational institutions of higher professional education - as the results of entrance tests in a foreign language. language.

2. Documents defining the content of the examination paper

1. Federal component of state standards of basic general and secondary (complete) general education, basic and profile level (Order of the Ministry of Education of Russia dated March 5, 2004 No. 1089).

2. Sample programs in foreign languages ​​// New state standards in foreign languages. Grades 2-11 / Education in documents and comments. M.: AST: Astrel, 2004.

3. Programs of general education institutions. English for grades 10-11 in schools with in-depth study of foreign languages. M.: Education, 2003.

4. Programs for general education institutions. German language for secondary schools with in-depth study of the German language. M.: Education: MARCH, 2004.

5. Programs of general education institutions. French for grades 1-11 in schools with in-depth study of foreign languages. M.: Education, 2001.

6. Programs of general education institutions. Spanish for grades 5-11 in schools with in-depth study of foreign languages. M.: Education, 2005.

When developing CMMs, the following are also taken into account:

7. Common European Framework of Reference for Languages: Learning, teaching, assessment. MSLU, 2003.

3. Approaches to selecting content and developing the structure of the Unified State Exam KIM

The purpose of the unified state exam in a foreign language is to determine the level of foreign language communicative competence of the examinee. The main attention is paid to speech competence, i.e. communication skills in different types of speech activity: listening, reading, writing, as well as language competence, i.e. language knowledge and skills. Sociocultural knowledge and skills are tested indirectly in the “Reading” section.

Consequently, the Unified State Exam KIM in foreign languages ​​contains sections “Listening”, “Reading”, “Grammar and Vocabulary” and “Writing”. It should be borne in mind that the “Reading” section has skills in the relevant types of speech activity as objects of control; these skills are provided by the necessary level of development of the language competence of the examinees. Successful completion of tasks for the control of receptive types of speech activity is ensured by knowledge of lexical units, morphological forms and syntactic structures and the skills of their recognition/recognition.

4. Structure of KIM Unified State Exam

When preparing for the Unified State Examination in English in the “Reading” section, students should be familiarized in advance with the format of this part of the exam paper. The recommended time to complete this section is 30 minutes. The maximum result is 20 points. The “Reading” section consists of three tasks. Each task tests one or another type of reading: understanding the main content of the text, understanding the structural and semantic connections of the text, detailed understanding of the text.

Basic level task (10) – a task to control skimming reading skills aimed at understanding the main content of the material read. Maximum score -7. Advanced level task (11) - a task to control the understanding of the structural and semantic connections of the text. Maximum score -6. High-level tasks (12-18) are aimed at controlling student reading, requiring a detailed understanding of what is read. Maximum score -7.

Codifier

content elements and requirements for the level of training of graduates

educational organizations to conduct a unified state

ENGLISH LANGUAGE exam

The codifier of content elements and requirements for the level of training of graduates of educational organizations for the Unified State Examination in English (hereinafter referred to as the codifier) ​​is one of the documents that determines the structure and content of the Unified State Exam KIM. It is compiled on the basis of the Federal component of state standards of basic general and secondary (complete) general education in a foreign language (basic and specialized levels) (Order of the Ministry of Education of Russia dated March 5, 2004 No. 1089).

The codifier does not include content elements highlighted in italics in the section “Mandatory minimum content of basic educational programs” of the standard: this content is subject to study, but is not included in the section “Requirements for the level of graduate training” of the standard, i.e. is not subject to control.

1. List of content elements tested on a single

state exam in English

	Understanding the main content of messages, simple ones
	Complete and accurate understanding of pragmatic information texts, popular science publications, excerpts from works of fiction
	Selective understanding of what is needed/interested information from the text of the article, prospectus
	Understanding the structural and semantic connections of the text

2. List of requirements for the level of training of graduates, the achievement of which is tested at the Unified State Exam in English

Requirement code	Knowledge, abilities and skills tested on the Unified State Exam
	(journalistic, artistic, popular science, pragmatic) using various strategies/types of reading in accordance with communicative
	Use exploratory reading for comprehension purposes publications of a scientific and educational nature, excerpts from works of fiction
	extracting the necessary/requested information from text of the article, prospectus
	use exploratory reading for full understanding information from pragmatic texts, scientific publications educational in nature, excerpts from works fiction
	Separate the main information from the secondary information, identify the most significant facts
	Determine your attitude towards what you read
	Determine temporal and causal relationship of events, predict development/result facts/events presented, summarize the described facts/phenomena
	information; understand the meaning of the text and its problems, using elements of text analysis

Reading Preparation Strategies

To successfully pass the exam, you must practice strategies for completing all three types of tasks. This will help you avoid wasting time during the exam and will help you concentrate on the important points of each task. When preparing, it is recommended to complete the task based on step-by-step instructions. I suggest that students use these recommendations for each type of assignment when completing their work.

In the first task (10) you need to establish a correspondence between the title, topic or short statement and the short text. The task offers seven short texts, marked with numbers 1-7 and eight headings, marked with letters A-N. One title is redundant. For each correctly identified match, 1 point is given, with a maximum of 7 points. The ability to understand the main idea (content) of a statement, separate the main from the secondary, ignore redundant information and unfamiliar words that do not interfere with the understanding of the main content is tested.

Before reading texts follows:

what unites them (topic, problem, situation, keyword, etc.)

how they differ from each other: the problem, attitude towards the problem, etc.

While studying the headings, underline the key words in them and make other notes to help you understand their meaning and differences.

Looking on headings, try to anticipate the main content of the text, select words/phrases that are necessary for disclosure of this topic/problem/situation.

During the second reading sequentially review each of the proposed texts, ignoring unfamiliar words and expressions, without delving into a detailed understanding.

After a quick look at each text, select one or more headings suggested in the task.

As you read each text, mark all possible answer options next to the text.

Make the necessary corrections as you read, because... some variants of the previous answers will be eliminated by elimination

If you have any difficulties determining whether the text matches the title (topic, short statement), read the text and try to formulate its main idea yourself, then choose the one that is closest in content from the remaining answer options and mark it.

During the second reading

Pay special attention to texts where several possible matches were initially selected.

Justify to yourself the choice of one or another correspondence based on the text.

Check that the other selected matches are correct.

After reading

Identify extra heading (topic, short statement)

In the second task (11) The task is given a text with six gaps, indicated by letters (A-F), and seven fragments of sentences to fill in the gaps, indicated by numbers (1-7). One sentence fragment is superfluous. It is necessary to establish a correspondence between part of the text and the missing fragment of the sentence. For each correctly identified match, 1 point is given. Maximum - 6 points.

During the first reading

Familiarize yourself in advance with the format of the assignment and the requirements for completing the forms for this assignment.

Quickly review the entire text (without highlighted fragments), try to determine its topic and main content.

During the second reading:

Read the text sequentially, paying special attention to the last word or expression before each pass; If this word or expression requires a certain agreement or control (use of a gerund, infinitive, preposition, conjunction, etc.), one must look for the corresponding beginning in the highlighted fragment.

If the same grammatical structure is used at the beginning of several highlighted fragments, take into account the semantic content of the sentence with the gap. as well as previous and subsequent sentences.

As you read, mark all possible correspondences by indicating the necessary letters next to the skip number or the necessary numbers next to the letters indicating the highlighted fragments,

Make the necessary corrections as you read, because... After each filled gap, unclear answer options will be determined more accurately and will be eliminated by elimination.

Pay special attention to gaps where several possible matches were initially selected. Justify for yourself the choice of one or another correspondence, taking into account the grammatical and lexical norms of compatibility adopted in the English language and/or based on the content of the text.

Check the validity of other selected matches.

After reading

Write down the final answer in the table after the task.

Identify the extra fragment.

Check again that all answers are recorded accurately.

In the third task (12-18) Part of the reading section offers seven test tasks (12-18). For each task, there are four answer options, indicated by numbers (1-4), of which only one is correct. As a rule, this is either the beginning of a sentence for which four possible endings are offered, or a question for which four possible answers are given. For each task (12-18), you must choose one correct answer from the four proposed. For each correctly chosen answer, 1 point is given; maximum - 7 points.

Before reading the text

Familiarize yourself in advance with the format of the assignment and the requirements for completing the answer forms for this assignment.

Read only questions or the beginnings of sentences without suggested answer options to determine the approximate content of the text, as well as the nature requested informations:

During the first reading

Complete the task sequentially. Remember that subsequence test questions are related to the sequence of development of the plot of the text.

Work with each question according to the proposed scheme:

define the essence of the information requested, those. understand what underlies the requested information: a word, phrase, sentence, paragraph and or the entire text;

find place, where the requested information is given in the text;

understand what is offered answer options are different from each other;

discard obviously incorrect options and determine the most likely answer;

prove , that the other options are incorrect or that the text does not contain the information offered in, as well as the differences between explicit and implicit information.

If you cannot consciously choose any of the proposed options, do not understand the essence of the question, still do not leave the task unanswered. Choose your answer intuitively.

After reading

Make sure you select the correct answer in each test task.

Record the results of completing the task on a draft so that they can be easily transferred to the answer form.

When regularly completing reading tasks, taking into account these strategies, these algorithms for completing tasks can become the guide to action that will allow you to effectively complete the task.

IIA set of exercises.

Training exercises

Understanding the main content of the text

1. Places to stay in

2. Arts and culture

3. New country image

5.Different landscapes

6. Transport system

7.National languages

A. Belgium has always had a lot more than the faceless administrative buildings that you can see in the outskirts of its capital, Brussels. A number of beautiful historic cities and Brussels itself offer impressive architecture, lively nightlife, first-rate restaurants and numerous other attractions for visitors. Today, the old-fashioned idea of ​​‘boring Belgium’ has been well and truly forgotten, as more and more people discover its very individual charms for themselves.

B. Nature in Belgium is varied. The rivers and hills of the Ardennes in the southeast contrast sharply with the rolling plains which make up much of the northern and western countryside. The most notable features are the great forest near the frontier with Germany and Luxembourg and the wide, sandy beaches of the northern coast.

C. It is easy both to enter and to travel around pocket-sized Belgium which is divided into the Dutch-speaking north and the French-speaking south. Officially the Belgians speak Dutch, French and German. Dutch is slightly more widely spoken than French, and German is spoken the least. The Belgians, living in the north, will often prefer to answer visitors in English rather than French, even if the visitor’s French is good.

D. Belgium has a wide range of hotels from 5-star luxury to small family pensions and inns. In some regions of the country, farm holidays are available. There visitors can (for a small cost) participate in the daily work of the farm. There are plenty of opportunities to rent furnished villas, flats, rooms, or bungalows for a holiday period. These holiday houses and flats are comfortable and well-equipped.

E. The Belgian style of cooking is similar to French, based on meat and seafood. Each region in Belgium has its own special dish. Butter, cream, beer and wine are generously used in cooking. The Belgians are keen on their food, and the country is very well supplied with excellent restaurants to suit all budgets. The perfect evening out here involves a delicious meal, and the restaurants and cafes are busy at all times of the week.

F. As well as being one of the best cities in the world for eating out (both for its high quality and range), Brussels has a very active and varied nightlife. It has 10 theaters which produce plays in both Dutch and French. There are also dozens of cinemas, numerous discos and many night-time cafes in Brussels. Elsewhere, the nightlife choices depend on the size of the town, but there is no shortage of fun to be had in any of the major cities.

G. There is a good system of underground trains, trams and buses in all the major towns and cities. In addition, Belgium’s waterways offer a pleasant way to enjoy the country. Visitors can take a one-hour cruise around the canals of Bruges (sometimes described as the Venice of the North) or an extended cruise along the rivers and canals linking the major cities of Belgium and the Netherlands.

Match headings 1–8 with texts A–G. Record your answers in the table. Use each number only once. There is one extra heading in the task.

1. Places to stay in

2. Public transport

3. Cultural differences

5. Camping holidays

6. Contacts with neighbors

7. Different landscapes

A. Sweden is a land of contrast, from the Danish influence of the southwest to the Laplanders wandering freely with their reindeer in the wild Arctic north. And while Sweden in cities is stylish and modern, the countryside offers many simpler pleasures for those who look for peace and calm. The land and its people have an air of reserved calm, and still the world’s best-selling pop group Abba, which was used to attract crowds of hysterical fans, come from Sweden.

B. Historically, Sweden has an interesting story. Its dealings with the outside world began, in fact, during Viking times, when in addition to the well-known surprise attacks of the nearby lands, there was much trading around the Baltic, mostly in furs and weapons. Swedish connections with the other Scandinavian countries, Norway and Denmark, have been strong since the Middle Ages. The monarchies of all three are still closely linked.

C. Sweden’s scenery has a gentler charm than that of neighboring Norway’s rocky coast. Much of Sweden is forested, and there are thousands of lakes, notably large pools near the capital, Stockholm. The lakeside resort in the center of Sweden is popular with Scandinavians, but most visitors prefer first the Baltic islands. The largest island, Gotland, with its ruined medieval churches, is a particular attraction.

D. Sweden boasts a good range of hotels, covering the full spectrum of prices and standards. Many of them offer discounts in summer and at weekends during the winter. In addition, working farms throughout Sweden offer accommodation, either in the main farmhouse or in a cottage nearby. Forest cabins and chalets are also available throughout the country, generally set in beautiful surroundings, near lakes, in quiet forest glades or on an island in some remote place.

E. Living in a tent or caravan with your family or friends at weekends and on holiday is extremely popular in Sweden and there is a fantastic variety of special places. Most are located on a lakeside or by the sea with free bathing facilities close at hand. There are over 600 campsites in the country. It is often possible to rent boats or bicycles, play mini-golf or tennis, ride a horse or relax in a sauna. It is also possible to camp in areas away from other houses.

F. Swedes like plain meals, simply prepared from the freshest ingredients. As a country with a sea coast and many freshwater lakes, fish dishes are found on all hotel or restaurant menus. Top-class restaurants in Sweden are usually fairly expensive, but even the smallest towns have reasonably priced self-service restaurants and grill bars. Many restaurants all over Sweden offer a special dish of the day at a reduced price that includes main course, salad, soft drink and coffee.

G. Stockholm has a variety of pubs, cafes, clubs, restaurants, cinemas and theaters but in the country evenings tend to be very calm and peaceful. From August to June the Royal Ballet performs in Stockholm. Music and theater productions take place in many cities during the summer in the open air. Outside Stockholm in the 18th-century palace there are performances of 18th-century opera very popular with tourists.

Match headings 1–8 with texts A–G. Record your answers in the table. Use each number only once. IN behind­ Yes­ research institute There is one only­ ny behind­ th­ lo­ wok.

3. Public transport

5. Places to stay in

6. Favorite food

7. Hot spots for kids

A. Denmark, a small kingdom in northern Europe, has a lot of interesting places for tourists with children. For example, Legoland, a theme park, has become the largest tourist attraction in Denmark outside its capital Copenhagen. And Copenhagen itself is world famous for its Tivoli Gardens amusement park, which opened in 1843 in the heart of the city. The park offers ballet and circus performances, restaurants, concerts, and fireworks displays.

B. Denmark is the smallest Scandinavian country, consisting of the Jutland peninsula, north of Germany, and over 400 islands of various sizes, some inhabited and linked to the mainland by ferry or bridge. Throughout the country, low hills provide a constant change of attractive views; there are also cool and shady forests of beech trees, large areas of open land covered with rough grass, a beautiful lake district, sand dunes and white cliffs on the coast.

C. More than four-fifths of all Danes live in towns. The main cities represent a combination of medieval buildings, such as castles and cathedrals, and modern office buildings and homes. Denmark’s high standard of living and wide-ranging social services guarantee that the cities have no poor districts. Most people in the cities live in flats. But in the suburbs many also live in single-family houses.

D. Denmark’s fine beaches attract many visitors, and there are hotels and pensions in all major seaside resorts. Besides, excellent inns are to be found all over the country. Some are small and only serve local travelers, but others are adapted to the tourist and have established reputations for both international dishes and local specialties. There are also private rooms to let, usually for one night, and chalets all over Denmark.

E. There is a wide selection of places to go out in the evening, particularly in Copenhagen. Jazz and dance clubs in the capital city are top quality and world-famous performers appear regularly. There are numerous cafes, beer gardens and specialty beer bars. Entertainment available includes opera at the recently opened opera house in Copenhagen, ballet and theater at a number of places in the larger cities, and live music of all kinds.

F. Most Danes eat four meals a day - breakfast, lunch, dinner, and a late-evening supper. Breakfast generally consists of cereal, cheese, or eggs. Dinner, which includes fish or meat, is usually the only hot meal. A traditional Danish dinner consists of roast duckling stuffed with apples, served with red cabbage and boiled potatoes. The other Danish meals consist mostly of sandwiches.

G. Almost all adult Danes can read and write. Danish law requires children to attend nine years of school. Primary school consists of the first seven grades, and secondary school lasts from three to five years. A five-year secondary school student can enter a university. Denmark has three universities. The University of Copenhagen is the oldest and largest. It was founded in 1479 and has about 24,000 students.

These people are interested in doing part-time courses. Read these adverts about part-time courses and choose a suitable course for each person.

Sue’s an engineer and she works for an American company. At the moment she’s managing a project in London. She loves working abroad and she’d like to work in South America or Asia one day. She hardly ever meets people that aren’t connected with her job. She wants to meet new people, use her mind and discuss ideas. She’s looking for an interesting evening course where she can do these things.

Jackie loves music and wants to work in the music industry when she leaves school. She plays the violin very well and has lessons once a week. Now she wants to learn to play the guitar or the piano. She isn’t going out or getting much exercise at the moment because she’s studying for her exams. She isn’t happy about this because she’s usually quite an active person.

Danilo is from Italy but he’s living in London at the moment. He’s working as a waiter in an Italian restaurant. He’d like to go to university in England and he’s trying to find out about courses. He likes traveling and he’s interested in talking to people from different countries. In his free time he goes to the cinema a lot and one day he’d like to work in the film industry.

1. Bring out the writer in you!

Learn how to write articles, short stories, novels.

Our professional team of writers can teach you everything you need to know. Don't delay! Fill in the form and send it to us.

2. Current affairs - what is behind those headlines?

Do you know what’s happening in the world at the moment? This course gives you all information and chance to discuss it in small, friendly groups. You can make friends from different countries.

This course is for anyone who loves film. We will look at the work of Hitchcock, Fellini, Tarantino and others.

4. Guitar and violin lessons

I’m a patient, experienced professional musician and I’m looking for students - beginners are welcome!

Lessons at students' homes.

5. Information technology evening courses

No computer skills? No problem! Come to our introductory courses!

These people want to find a coffee shop or a nice place to eat. Decide which cafe would be the most suitable for them. Here are descriptions of five cafes in town. Decide which cafe would be the most suitable for the people above.

1. Ann works for a travel agency in a small seaside resort. Every morning she has a big breakfast, as she only has a one hour lunch break.Sometimes there’s even extra work to do at lunchtime. There are a few cafes around her office, but they all serve traditional British food. She prefers unusual and quite strong flavours.

2. Mrs Black is a retired 75-year-old History teacher. She is proud of her British origin and is looking for a traditional place to spend her empty afternoons in. She doesn’t like crowded or noisy coffee shops.

3. Mr Ridle and Mr Radison are two businessmen who always work long hours. They have to deal with sales reps coming from all over Europe. At the end of a long meeting they like having a quick but high-quality meal with them.

4. Keith is a personal trainer in a sports center. At the moment he’s much more interested in travelling. Unfortunately he is allergic to some food. He can’t stand meat, but he loves eating lots of other types of dishes, particularly eggs.

a. The Hidden place

The most unspoilt place in town. Delicious homemade cakes and proper tea and coffee for anybody who enjoys taking their time. Try next door if you're in a hurry! Pets welcome. Cheap prices.

b. At Eddie's

This is more of all you can eat salad bar! The ideal place where you can enjoy all vegan food including French fries, hash-brown nuggets and omlettes! Parking places available.

c. Food Paradise

We are a small family owned restaurant and coffee shop located in the city centre. We offer the biggest variety in authentic Mexican food. All dishes are for very reasonable prices.

d. Coffee Shop "Bella Italia"

Forget expensive luxury Italian restaurants. We offer classic Italian cooking at coffee shop prices. Self-service area and five tables are always reserved for nearby companies. Closed Sat-Sun.

e. Cafe Antalya

Popular Turkish cafe on the coast. If you are fed up with the usual tomato and cheese sandwich, try our Adana Kebab, a spicy hot, grilled meat specialty. For a quick snack, sweet syrupy pasties and strong black coffee await you! Good prices and outdoor seating available.

These people want to buy a CD. These are descriptions of some CDs. Decide which CD would be the most suitable for the following people.

1. Peter is an English teacher. He has traveled a lot, and he likes to listen to foreign music, especially from India and other Asian countries. He is quite fond of folk music.

2. Karen is a high school student who enjoys listening to the newest pop songs to practice her English. She likes to sing along with the music while she listens. She especially enjoys listening to music sung in English by groups of attractive young men who can dance.

3. Bob is retired. He likes to listen to music from his youth because it reminds him of when he used to play the piano in a band at university. He doesn’t like music with a lot of singing because it’s difficult to hear the instruments well.

4. Mick is a high school student who plays the violin. He likes listening to well-known orchestras playing classical music and hopes to play in one of them some day.

A. The Singer was 111 For lovers of classical music who don’t like opera-style singing, the famous New York City Opera Orchestra has made this unusual CD. Listeners can hear some of the most famous opera melodies of all time with one important difference: there is no singing at all.

B. The Golden Age of Jazz 1960

Here is a great disc for lovers of music from this important year in the history of jazz. There is very little singing on this CD, just lots of fantastic playing by some of the greatest musicians of the time.

C. Get up and dance

This collection of newly recorded updated versions of pop songs from your parents’ generation will have you singing and dancing all night! Some of these songs are sure to be hits again for the second time.

D. China and its Music

China is an enormous country with many different languages, traditions and music. Fifteen unusual songs will give you an idea of ​​the variety of traditional music that can be found in this beautiful, interesting country.

E. Music Video Gold

This CD has thirteen songs from the most popular music videos of this year. The words to all of the songs are also included for your maximum enjoyment. As a special bonus, you can also hear all of the songs without singing if you’d like to sing and pretend you are your favorite pop star!

Read the newspaper advertisements and choose who can live there:

d) a family with child

A separate flat facing the river, on the second floor, central heating, hot water, a bathroom, a big kitchen, a living room with large windows, a bedroom. All the rooms are furnished. The rent is 100 pounds a month.

2 . ______

The Victoria is a large and comfortable hotel in the center of Oxford. There are double rooms and single ones. All the bedrooms have television, telephone and central heating. There are two restaurants, a coffee shop and a bar. The hotel has a lift and a car park.

A separate room on the fifth floor for a single man, with furniture and a bathroom. There is a desk, a sofa, a TV set and a bookcase. The telephone is in the hall. There is no lift. The room is small but warm and cozy. The rent is only 50 pounds a month.

A two-bedroom apartment facing a park on the tenth floor, a large living room, furnished. There is a small kitchen with modern equipment. A swimming pool and a laundry are in the basement. The rent is 150 pounds a month.

a. Who else can be real friends?

b. Why do friendships end?

c. What is friendship?

d. What should a friend be like?

1. ____ The famous 4th century philosopher Aristotle once said,

‘Without friends nobody would want to live’. Friendship is indeed universal and one of the most important human emotions. Friendship is important for everyone. According to scientists, people who have lots of friends get ill less often, looking younger and are more willing to work. Children who have lots of friends become more generous and do better at school, while old people who have lots of friends age less.

2. _______First of all, a friend must be honest and loyal. Then they

must be able to listen and participate, not only in their friend’s joy, but in their suffering, too. Also, they must have the same interests and opinions as their friends. Friends are the important part of your life. And the best friend must keep secret and you can rely on him or her. Usually real friendship becomes stronger with age.

3. _______A friendship can end for many different reasons. One im

portant reason is trust. If you tell a secret to your friend and they don’t keep it, you might fall out and the friendship could end. Jealousy and envy are other causes. In fact, a jealous or envious friend is not a real friend!

4. ________Animals can be great friends. For many people the com

panionship of a dog or a cat is very important. There is even a therapy‘Pet Therapy’, that uses contact with animals to help people with physical and psychological problems.

Read the text and give the title to the parts of the text:

a. the problems of driving

b. the second capital

c. traffic in the city

d. business center

e. cultural center

1. ____Everyone knows something about New York- the Statue

of Liberty, the skyscrapers, the beautiful shops on Fifth Avenue, and many theaters of Broadway. This is America’s cultural capital, and its biggest city, with a population of nearly eight million. In the summer it is hot and in winter it can be very cold, but there are hundreds of things to do and see all the year round.

2. ____There are five parts in New York: Brooklyn, the Bronx, Manhattan, Queens and Richmond. Only one of them, the Bronx, is not on an island. Manhattan, the smallest island in New York, is the real center of the city. When people say ‘New York City’ they usually mean Manhattan. Most of the interesting shops, buildings and museums are here, and Manhattan is the scene of New York’s busy night life.

3. ____Wall Street in Manhattan is the financial heart of the USA

and the most important banking center in the world. It is a street of skyscrapers. Five million people work here every day.

4. _____Like every big city, New York has its own traffic system.

Traffic jams can be terrible, and it’s usually quickest to go by subway. It goes to almost every corner of Manhattan. But be careful at night, it’s better not to go by subway. There are more than 30,000 taxis in New York. They are easy to see because they are bright yellow.

5. If you really have to drive in New York, remember that

nearly all the east-west streets and most of the north-south streets are one way only. This can be difficult for the visitor who doesn’t know his way. Try to get a map that shows the directions of the traffic, and good luck!

The people are planning to take up a new activity. Decide which class would be the most suitable for them. There are descriptions of six classes.

1. Susan is a waitress and works a lot of hours at different times of the day and evening. She’d like to be able to do something creative in her own time.

2. Peter works with computers and feels he needs to do something that will keep him fit. He isn’t sure what to do so he’d like to be able to try an activity before making a final decision.

3. Robert wants to take up an activity that will give him plenty of contact with other people. He is confident and enjoys performing.

4. Hannah has a busy and stressful job and wants to find a way of relaxing that she can also do at home. She wants to look better and feel better.

A. Art Scene

You don’t have to be Picasso to learn to draw and paint in a friendly and relaxing atmosphere. Our evening course includes trips to art galleries and visits by local artists.

B. Pen to Paper

To help you become a first-class writer, we offer you a home-study course. We have excellent tutors who will guide you through the course and show you how to make the most of your ability. Write and study when and where you want. It couldn't be easier.

C. Mind and Body

Try yoga to help you deal with life’s worries! It can also help improve the way you look and develop concentration. Best of all, once you’ve learned the basics, it’s something you can do anywhere.

D. Salsa for Beginners

Dancing is great exercise! Find out if it’s for you with our free ‘Salsa for Beginners’. Spend an hour having fun in a lively class. We’re sure you’ll want to book straight onto one of our courses after that!

E. What's cooking?

Would you like to create fantastic meals and dinner parties for your friends, or do you simply have trouble making an omelette? If the answer is ‘yes’ to either of these questions, why not try one of our Friday evening cooking classes? You’ll always have ideas for the weekend!

F. On Stage

If you’d like something new and interesting to do, why not join the Talking Theater Group? We work hard but we have a lot of fun too! We put on two shows a year for local people, which are always very popular!

Put the parts of the text into right order

A. This modern festival started in California in the United States in the 1960s because some black people wanted to celebrate their original history and culture in their new country. Some Africans in the USA, especially those living in white areas, want their children to value their African-American history. Kwanzaa is not a religious festival, but a festival that celebrates several important ideas and principles like unity, cooperation and creativity, for example.

B. As Kwanzaa becomes popular, it is also becoming more commercialized. There are now Kwanzaa cards, books on Kwanzaa, poetry and recipes. Parents are buying more expensive gifts for their children. Now there is also ’Nia Umoja’ a kind old man, rather like Father Christmas,

who attracts children to the festival. Kwanzaa is an interesting balance of African and modern American influence.

C. Kwanzaa is a modern festival celebrated by African Americans. It comes from traditional African agricultural festivals. In fact, the name ‘Kwanzaa’ comes from the Swahili word for the first fruit. African Americans also use a Swahili greeting, ‘What’s new?’ during their festival of Kwanzaa.

D. The festival lasts for seven days, from December 26. People light candles, give gifts, and talk about one special principle every day, on each day. On each night there is a dance, and on the final night there is a big feast.

Put the parts of the text into right order.

Meals in Britain

A.‘Tea means two things. It is a drink and a meal! Some people have afternoon tea, with sandwiches, cakes, and, of course, a cup of tea. Cream teas are popular. You have scones (a kind of cake) with cream and jam.

B. A traditional English breakfast is a very big meal - sausages, bacon, eggs, tomatoes, mushrooms... But nowadays many people just have cereal with milk and sugar or toast with marmalade, jam or honey.

Marmalade and jam are not the same. Marmalade is made from oranges and jam is made from other fruit. The traditional breakfast drink is tea, which people have with cold milk. Some people have coffee, often instant coffee, which is made with hot water. Many visitors to Britain find this coffee disgusting.

C. British like food from other countries too, especially Italian, French, Chinese, and Indian. People often get take-away meals. You buy the food at the restaurant and then bring it home to eat. Eating in Britain is quite international.

D. On Sundays many families have a traditional lunch. They have roast meat, either beef, lamb, chicken or pork, with potatoes, vegetables and gravy. Gravy is a sauce made from the meat juices.

E. For many people lunch is a quick meal. In cities there are a lot of sandwich bars, where office workers can choose the kind of bread they want - brown, white or a roll - and then all sorts of salad and meat or fish to go in the sandwich. Pubs often serve good, cheap food, both hot and cold. School children can have a hot meal at school, but many just take a snack from home.

F. The evening meal is the main meal of the day for many people. They usually have it quite early, between 6 and 8 p.m., and often the whole family eats together.

Understanding structural and semantic connections in the text

Fire Crews Hunt Escaped Hamster

Eight firefighters have been called in to help find an escaped hamster. Two crews used a chocolate-covered camera and a vacuum cleaner A ____, called Fudgie, at the home of a six-year-old girl in Dunbar, Scotland.

The girl’s mother said: ‘We came down for breakfast and discovered Fudgie had opened the top lid of her cage and had made her way into the kitchen and we think she has gone IN ____ ."

The fire crews spent five hours trying to recover the pet after it ran down a hole in the kitchen floor. But, the hamster still refused WITH ____ .

In the search for Fudgie, the firefighters took the family cooker and gas pipes apart. They also dropped a mini-camera coated with chocolate under the floorboards. They then hoped to take out the hamster using a vacuum cleaner. Despite all their efforts, they failed to find Fudgie.

In the end, the firefighters put another camera down the hole D ____, connected to the screen of the family home computer, to see if Fudgie appeared. Besides, the girl and her parents regularly dropped food E ____ .

At last, after eight days the hamster returned to her cage safe and sound. She crawled from the hole in the kitchen floor early in the morning. It was the girl’s father who first found Fudgie F ____ .

The girl said that day it was like Christmas morning for her. Her parents added that they too felt extremely happy when Fudgie had finally returned.

1. through a small hole in the floor

2. through the hole for the hamster

3. and locked the runaway hamster

4. to come out of the hole

5. to look after the pet

6. to try and locate the missing hamster

7. and left it under the floorboards

Read the text and fill in the gaps A–F with the parts of the sentences indicated by numbers 1–7. One of the parts in list 1–7 is redundant. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences into the table.

If you eat very quickly, it may be enough to increase your risk of being overweight, research suggests.

Osaka University scientists looked at the eating habits of 3,000 people. Just about half of them told researchers that they A ______. Compared with those who did not eat quickly, fast-eating men were 84% more likely to be overweight, and women were 100% more likely to IN ______ .

Japanese scientists said that there were a number of reasons why eating fast WITH ______. They said it could prevent the work of a signaling system which tells your brain to stop eating because your stomach is full. They said: ‘If you eat quickly you basically fill your stomach before the system has a chance to react, so you D _____ .

The researchers also explained that a mechanism that helps make us fat today, developed with evolution and helped people get more food in the periods when they were short of it. The scientists added that the habit of eating fast could be received from one’s parents genes or E ______ .

They said that, if possible, children should be taught to F ______, and allowed to stop when they felt full up at mealtimes. ‘The advice of our grandmothers about chewing everything 20 times might be true - if you take a bit more time eating, it could have a positive influence on your weight.

1. just overfill your stomach

2. could be bad for your weight

3. have a habit of eating quickly

4.linked to obesity

5. eat as slowly as possible

6. put on weight

7. learned at a very early age

Read the text and fill in the gaps A–F with the parts of the sentences indicated by numbers 1–7. One of the parts in list 1–7 is redundant. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences into the table.

Hi-Tech Brings Families Together

Technology is helping families stay in touch like never before, says a report carried out in the US.

Instead of driving people apart, mobile phones and the Internet are A ______. The research looked at the differences in technology use between families with children and single adults. It found that traditional families have more hi-tech gadgets in their home IN ______. Several mobile phones were found in 89% of families and 66% had a high-speed Internet connection. The research also found that 58% of families have more WITH ______ .

Many people use their mobile phone to keep in touch and communicate with parents and children. Seventy percent of couples, D ______, use it every day to chat or say hello. In addition, it was found that 42% of parents contact their children via their mobile every day.

The growing use of mobile phones, computers and the Internet means that families no longer gather around the TV to spend time together. 25% of those who took part in the report said they now spend less time E ______. Only 58% of 18-29 year olds said they watched TV every day. Instead the research found that 52% of Internet users who live with their families go online F ______ several times a week and 51% of parents browse the web with their children.

Some analysts have worried that new technologies hurt families, but we see that technology allows for new kinds of connectivity built around cell phones and the Internet/ said the report.

1. than any other group

2.watching television

3. in the company of someone else

4. than two computers in the home

5. communicated with their families

6. helping them communicate

7. owning a mobile

Read the text and fill in the gaps A–F with the parts of the sentences indicated by numbers 1–7. One of the parts in list 1–7 is redundant. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences into the table.

The Power of 'Hello'

I work at a company where there are hundreds of employees. I know most of them and almost all of them know me. It is all based on one simple principle: I believe every single person deserves to be acknowledged, A ______ .

When I was about 10 years old, I was walking down the street with my mother. She stopped to speak to Mr. Lee. I knew I could see Mr. Lee any time around the neighborhood, IN ______ .

After we passed Mr. Lee, my mother said something that has stuck with me from that day until now. She said, ‘You let that be the last time you ever walk by somebody and not open up your mouth to speak, because even a dog can wag its tail WITH ______. That phrase sounds simple, but it has been a guidepost for me and the foundation of who I am. I started to see that when I spoke to someone, they spoke back. And that felt good. It is not just something I believe in - D ______. I believe that every person deserves to feel someone acknowledges their presence, no matter how unimportant they may be.

At work, I always used to say ‘hello’ to the founder of the company and ask him how our business was doing. But I was also speaking to the people in the cafe, and asked how their children were doing. I remembered after a few years of passing by the founder, I had the courage to ask him for a meeting. We had a great talk.

At a certain point, I asked him E ______. He said, ‘If you want to, you can get all the way to this seat.’ I have become vice president, but that has not changed the way I approach people. I speak to everyone I see, no matter where I am. I have learned that speaking to people creates a pathway into their world, F ______ .

1. it has become a way of life.

2. when it passes you on the street.

3. when you see him and talk to him.

4. and it lets them come into mine, too.

5. so I did not pay any attention to him.

6. however small or simple the greeting is.

7. how far he thought I could go in his company.

Read the text and fill in the gaps A–F with the parts of the sentences indicated by numbers 1–7. One of the parts in list 1–7 is redundant. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences into the table.

Friendship and Love

A strong friendship takes a significant amount of time to develop. It will not just magically mature overnight. A friendship involves committing oneself to help another person A ______. I believe that, nothing can replace a true friend, not material objects, or money, and definitely not a boy.

I met this guy a couple summers ago who I ended up spending almost all of my free time with. His parents did not approve of our dating because of our age difference, IN ______. He had told me the day we met that he had joined the air force and would leave for overseas that coming October. After three months had past, the time came when he had to leave. This left me feeling completely alone.

I turned to my friends for support, but to my surprise, WITH ______. I had spent so much time with this guy and so little time with them, that they did not feel sorry for me when he left. For so long they had become the only constant in my life, and I had taken them for granted over something D ______ .When my boyfriend came back, our relationship changed. I tried to fix all the aspects in my life that had gone so wrong in the previous six months.

This experience taught me that true friendships will only survive if one puts forth effort to make them last. Keeping friends close will guarantee that E ______. When a relationship falls apart, a friend will always do everything in their power to make everything less painful. As for me, I try to keep my friends as close as I can. I know they will always support me in whatever I do, and to them, I F ______ .

1. but we did anyway.

2. whenever a need arises.

3. they didn't really care.

4. whenever they need your help.

5. Could not guarantee would even last.

6. am eternally grateful"for a second chance.

7. someone will always have a shoulder to cry

Full understanding of the information in the text

Read the text, answer the questions

Why did schoolchildren like the new teacher, Mr. Sampson?

1) They liked his appearance.

2) He often went for a walk with them.

3) He organized competitions for them.

4) They enjoyed listening to his stories.

A School Story

It happened at my private school thirty odd years ago, and I still can’t explain it. I came to that school in September and among the boys who arrived on the same day was one whom I took to. I will call him McLeod. The school was a large one: there must have been from 120 to 130 boys there as a rule, and so a significant staff of masters was required. One term a new master made his appearance. His name was Sampson. He was a tall, well-built, pale, black-bearded man. I think we liked him. He had traveled a good deal, and had stories which amused us on our school walks, so that there was some competition among us to get a chance to listen to him.

Well, the first odd thing that happened was this. Sampson was doing Latin grammar with us. One of his favorite methods was to make us construct sentences out of our own heads to illustrate the rules he was trying to teach us. Now, on this occasion he ordered us each to make a sentence bringing in the verb memlnij 'I remember.' Well, most of us made up some ordinary sentence such as 'I remember my father, ' but the boy I mentioned - McLeod - was evidently thinking of something more interesting than that. Finally, very quickly he wrote a couple of lines on his paper, and showed it up with the rest. The phrase was “Remember the lake among the four oaks.” Later McLeod told me that it had just come into his head. When Sampson read it he got up and went to the man-tel-piece and stopped quite a long time without saying anything looking really embarrassed. Then he wanted to know why McLeod had put it down, and where his family lived, and if there was such a lake there, and things like that.

There was one other incident of the same kind. We were told to make a conditional sentence, expressing a future consequence. We did it and showed up our bits of paper, and Sampson began looking through them. All at once he got up, made some odd sort of noise in his throat, and rushed out. I noticed that he hadn’t taken any of the papers with him, so we went to look at them on his desk. The top paper on the desk was written in red ink - which no one used - and it wasn’t in anyone’s handwriting who was in the class. I questioned everyone myself! Then I thought of counting the bits of paper: there were seventeen of them on the desk, and sixteen boys in the form. I put the extra paper in my bag and kept it. The phrase on it was simple and harmless enough: 'If you don't come to me, I'll come to you.' That same afternoon I took it out of my bag - I know for certain it was the same bit of paper , for I made a fingermark on it - and there was no single piece of writing on it!

The next day Sampson was in school again, much as usual. That night the third and last incident in my story happened. We - McLeod and I - slept in a bedroom the windows of which looked out at the main building of the school. Sampson slept in the main building on the first floor. At an hour which I can’t remember exactly, but some time between one and two, I was woken up by somebody shaking me. I saw McLeod in the light of the moon which was looking right into our windows. ‘Come,’ he said, - ‘come, there’s someone getting in through Sampson’s window. About five minutes before I woke you, I found myself looking out of this window here, and there was a man sitting on Sampson’s window-sill, and looking in.’ ‘What sort of man? Is anyone from the senior class going to play a trick on him? Or was it a burglar?!’ McLeod seemed unwilling to answer. 'I don't know,' he said, 'but I can tell you one thing - he was as thin as a rail, and water was running down his hair and clothing and/ he said, looking round and whispering as if he hardly liked to hear himself, 'I'm not at all sure that he was alive.' Naturally I came and looked, and naturally there was no one there.

And next day Mr. Sampson was gone: not to be found, and I believe no trace of him has ever come to light since. Neither McLeod nor I ever mentioned what we had seen to anyone. We seemed unable to speak about it. We both felt strange horror which neither could explain.

Read text, answer on questions

The first time Sally traveled by train was when she

1) had to move to her aunt Alice.

2) had a summer vacation at school.

3) went to Pittsburgh for the first time in her life.

4) visited her aunt Alice together with aunt Winnie.

First Train Trip

I must have been about eight when I made my first train trip. I think I was in second grade at that time. It was midsummer, hot and wet in central Kansas, and time for my aunt Winnie’s annual vacation from the store, where she worked as a clerk six days a week. She invited me to join her on a trip to Pittsburgh, fifty miles away, to see her sister, my aunt Alice. ‘Sally, would you like to go there by train or by car?’ aunt Winnie asked. ‘Oh, please, by train, aunt Winnie, dear! We’ve been there by car three times already!’

Alice was one of my favorite relatives and I was delighted to be invited to her house. As I was the youngest niece in Mother’s big family, the aunties all tended to spoil me and Alice was no exception. She kept a boarding house for college students, a two-storey, brown brick building with comfortable, nicely decorated rooms at the corner of 1200 Kearney Avenue. She was also a world-class cook, which kept her boarding house full of young people. It seemed to me that their life was so exciting and joyful.

Since I’d never ridden a train before, I became more and more excited as the magic day drew near. I kept questioning Mother about train travel, but she just said, ‘Wait. You’ll see.’ For an eight-year-old, waiting was really difficult, but finally the big day arrived. Mother had helped me pack the night before, and my little suitcase was full with summer sundresses, shorts and blouses, underwear and pajamas. I was reading Billy Whiskers, a fantastic story about a goat that once made a train trip to New York, and I had put that in as well. It was almost midnight when I could go to bed at last.

We arrived at the station early, purchased our tickets and found our car. I was fascinated by the face-to-face seats so some passengers could ride backwards. Why would anyone, I thought, want to see where they’d been? I only wanted to see what lay ahead for me.

Finally, the conductor shouted, ‘All aboard!’ to the people on the platform. They climbed into the cars, the engineer blew the whistle and clanged the bell, and we pulled out of the station.

This train stopped at every town between my home in Solomon and Pittsburgh. It was known as the ‘milk train’ because at one time it had delivered goods as well as passengers to these villages. I looked eagerly at the signs at each station. I’d been through all these towns by car, but this was different. The shaky ride of the coaches, the soft brown plush seats, the smells of the engine drifting back down the track and in through the open windows made this trip far more exotic.

The conductor, with his black uniform and shiny hat, the twinkling signals that told the engineer when to stop and go, thrilled me. To an adult, the trip must have seemed painfully slow, but I enjoyed every minute.

Aunt Winnie had packed a lunch for us to eat along the way as there was no dining car in the train. I was dying to know just what was in that big shopping bag she carried, but she, too, said, ‘Wait. You’ll see.’ Midway, Aunt Winnie pulled down her shopping bag from the luggage rack above our seats. My eyes widened as she opened it and began to take out its contents. I had expected lunch- meat sandwiches, but instead there was a container of fried chicken, two hardboiled eggs, bread and butter wrapped in waxed paper, crisp radishes and slim green onions from Winnie’s garden, as well as rosy sliced ​​tomatoes. She had brought paper plates, paper cups and some of the ‘everyday’ silverware. A large bottle of cold tea was well wrapped in a dishtowel; the ice had melted, but it was still chilly. I carefully balanced my plate on my knees and ate, wiping my lips and fingers with a large paper napkin. This was living!

When we had cleaned our plates, Aunt Winnie looked into the bag one more time. The best treat of all appeared - homemade chocolate cakes! Another cup of cold tea washed these down and then we carefully returned the remains of the food and silverware to the bag, which Aunt Winnie put into the corner by her feet.

‘Almost there,’ said my aunt, looking out of the window at the scenery passing by. And sure enough, as we pulled into the Pittsburgh station we immediately caught sight of aunt Alice, waiting for us, a smile like the sun lighting up her face, arms wide open. We got off the train and she led us past the taxi rank and the bus stop to her car that was parked near the station. And all the way to her home she was asking about my impressions of my first train trip and I could hardly find the words to express all the thrill and excitement that filled me.

Read text, answer on questions

Why is the collage of photographs more important for Kathy than the other wedding presents?

1) It reminds Kathy of her wedding.

2) Kathy didn’t like the other wedding presents.

3) It was the most expensive present.

4) Kathy’s sister made it for her.

‘Dear Kathy! Chance made us sisters, hearts made us friends.’ This quote is at the center of a collage of photographs - covering our twenty-something years - that now hangs in my office. My sister, Susie, made it for me as a wedding present. It probably cost very little to make (she is a starving college student, after all), but it means more to me than any of the more ‘traditional’ wedding presents my husband and I received from family and friends last June. Whenever I look at the collage, it reminds me of my sister and what a true friend she is.

Susie and I weren’t always close friends. Far from it, in fact. We shared a room for nearly fifteen years when we were younger, and at the time I thought I couldn’t have asked for a worse roommate. She was always around! If we discussed and I wanted to go to my room to be alone, she’d follow me right in. If I told her to go away, she’d say right back, ‘It’s my room, too! And I can be here if I want to.’ I’d consult my mother and she usually agreed with Susie. I suppose being three years younger has its benefits.

When we were kids, she’d ‘borrow’ my dolls without asking. (And no toy was safe in her hands.) When we got older, Susie quit borrowing my toys and started borrowing my clothes. That was the final straw. I couldn't take it anymore. I begged my parents to let me have a room of my own - preferably one with a lock on the door. The answer was always a resounding ‘no.’ ‘Please?!’ I’d beg. My parents would just shake their heads. They didn’t agree with each other on much, but for some reason they had a united front on this issue.

To crown it all, she had this habit of doing everything I did. Choirs, rock bands, sports teams, dance studios: There was no place where I was safe. ‘She looks up to you,’ my mom would say. I didn't care. I just wanted a piece of my life that didn’t involve my little sister. When I complained to my mother, she’d just smile and say, ‘One day you’ll want her around.’ Sure.

It’s strange how mothers have this habit of being right about everything. When I was sixteen and my sister was thirteen, we went through a series of life-changing events together that would forever change our relationship. First, my parents announced that they were divorcing. My dad packed up and moved to an apartment in New Hampshire - more than a half hour drive away from our cozy house in Massachusetts. He bought me my first car and I often went with Susie to his place when we missed him a lot. During those trips we started discussing our troubles and making plans about how to reunite the family again. But a year later, our father met his future second wife and moved again; this time to Indiana. This meant we could only see him once or twice a year, as opposed to once every few weeks. That was hard.

Yet those few months changed my relationship with my sister forever. We started having more heart-to-heart talks as opposed to silly fights. Over time, she became my most cherished friend. It’s not uncommon for us to have three-hour-long telephone conversations about everything or about nothing-just laughing over memories from childhood or high school.

She’s the only person who’s been through all of the tough stuff that I’ve been through, and the only person who truly understands me. Susie and I have shared so much. She’s been my roommate, my friend, and my partner in crime. We’ve done plays together, gone to amusement parks, sang, and taken long road trips together. We’ve laughed until our sides hurt, and wiped away each others’ tears.

Even though the distance separates us now, we’re closer than ever. Sisters share a special bond. They’ve seen all of your most embarrassing moments. They know your deepest, darkest secrets. Most importantly, they love you unconditionally. I’m lucky to be able to say that my little sister is my best friend. I only wish everyone could be so fortunate.

Read text, execute exercises after text

While he was a teenager, he married a woman some years older than himself. He had three children: the eldest is the daughter and then twins – a son and another girl. In 1587 William went to work in London leaving his family at home. Some people say that the reason was his love of poetry and theater.

Write down the words and phrases used in the text

1. worker, farmer 3. 2 children, 3 children

   listening, reading 4. cinema, theater

Complete the sentences according to the text

a) on April 22 b) on April 23 c) ​​on August 23

a) a glove-maker b) a clock-maker c) a shoe-maker

3. At school William learned to love…

a) dancing b) reading c) singing

a) New York b) Cardiff c) London

Write down if the sentences are true to the text or false

1. The Globe Theater was built on the bank of the river Clyde.

Answer the questions on the text

Put the sentences in the order they are used in the text

1. Most of his plays were staged in the Globe Theatre.

   He married a woman some years older than himself.

   William had quite a good education.

   He stopped writing and went to live in Stratford.

Read the text, do the exercises after the text

ASad Story

Three men came to New York for their holidays. Their names were Tom, Pete and Andy. They came to a hotel and asked for a room. The friends got a room on the forty-fifth floor.

They went sightseeing, visited the picture gallery and looked into some shops. In the evening they came back to the hotel from the cinema.

The servant in the hotel told them: “I’m sorry, gentlemen, the lift doesn’t work.” If you don’t want to go up to your room, you can sleep here, in the hall. I’ll bring you the bed linen.”

“No, no,” said the men, “we shan’t sleep in the hall.” We shall go up to our room.” Then Tom said to his friends: “It’s not easy to go up to the forty-fifth floor. I know what we shall do. I shall tell you a lot of jokes. Andy will sing us songs and Pete will tell us an interesting story.”

The three friends went up to their room. They listened to Tom's jokes, then Andy sang songs. When they came to the thirty-fifth floor, Tom said to Pete: “Now we shall listen to your long and interesting story.”

“Yes,” answered Pete, “but my story is short and very sad.” I have no key with me. It is on the table in the hall.”

Reading Comprehension Test №2

I. Choose the phrases which were used in the text

1. three men, four men 3. Theater, cinema

2. New York, London 4. Funny stories, jokes

II. Choose the sentences which were used in the text

1. A) The friends got a room on the thirty-fifth floor.

B) The friends got a room on the forty-fifth floor.

2 A) They looked into some shops.

B) They looked into some supermarkets.

3. A) We shall go up to our room.

B) We shall sleep in the hall.

4. A) Andy told interesting stories.

B) Andy sang songs.

III. Complete the sentences according to the text

Three men came to…

The friends got a room on the…

Pete has left the key…

IV. Write down if the sentences are true to the text or false

1. Three men came to a restaurant.

2. Three men visited a picture gallery.

3. They came back from the cinema in the afternoon.

4. Pete will sing songs.

V. Answer the questions on the text

1. Where did three men come to?

2. Why did they go up to their room on foot?

3. Who told the jokes?

4. What was Peter’s story?

Summer time is a time for festival in Britain. Join us as we go to three fabulous festivals.

Notting Hill Carnival

The Notting Hill Carnival takes place in the Notting Hill area of ​​London on the last weekend in August. It is a huge multicultural arts festival and is the largest street festival in Europe. Groups come from all over the world to take part. There’s music, dancing, street theater and decorated floats. Up to 1.5 million people come to the festival and there’s something for everyone to see and do.

Glastonbury Festival

It’s the world’s biggest open air music festival. The festival covers 1,000 acres of farmland in south-west England. It takes place in June and lasts four days. About 700 acts are played on over 80 stages. There is continual music from 9 o’clock in the morning until 6 o’clock the next morning. Last year 190,000 people attended the festival and paid 200 for a ticket. Hundreds of famous names have performed at Glastonbury. It also supports charities such as Greenpeace, WaterAid and others. The festival is famous for its rain! In 1997,1998 and 2005 it rained, every day, and the festival-goers danced in the mud.

Eisteddford

Eisteddfod, a celebration of Welsh music and poetry, is the biggest cultural event in Wales and it takes place in the first week of August. There are competitions for all the best singers, choirs and poets. The Gorsedd of the Bards, an association of the best poets, writers, musicians and artists in Wales, selects the winners. The members of the Gorsedd are called druids and they wear long colorful robes. All the events are in Welsh, but there are headphones with English language translations for anyone who doesn’t understand Welsh!

1. Where does the Notting Hill Carnival take place?

a. in the suburbs of London

b. in one of the parts of London

c. in the center of London

2. Who usually attends this festival?

a. only Londoners

b. British people

c. different people

3. When does Glastonbury host its music event?

a. at the beginning of summer

b. in the middle of summer

c. at the end of summer

4. What does this festival support?

a. some handicrafts

b. environmental projects

c. foreign people

5. What is Eisteddfod?

a. it's only a music festival

b. it's a folk festival

c. it's a poetry competition

6. In what language are the events at Eisteddfod?

Niagara Falls is located between Southern Ontario (Canada) and New York State (USA). The first inhabitants who settled in the Niagara Falls region were the Iroquois. They worked as farmers and trades along the banks of the Niagara River. When the first Europeans set foot in the area, they also settled there. The 19th century brought the most important developments to the area. The Village of Manchester (Niagara Falls) became an important center for manufacturing companies during the early years of the industrial development. Tourists started to arrive in the 1820s and they still visit this after almost two centuries.

The most comfortable way to visit Niagara Falls is a boat trip on the world famous Maid of the Mist. This historical boat tour takes millions of tourists to the Falls from the Canadian to the American side every year. Don't miss two other important attractions: the White Water Walk, an amazing tour through a deep narrow gorge and the Journey Behind the Falls, a self-guided tour which takes you to an observation platform at the base of the Falls in a lift . You can then go on a short journey through some tunnels which lead you behind the Falls.

After a day of exciting adventure, visit Niagara Square with all its shops, cinemas and boutiques. There are lots of restaurants that serve locally grown products and regional cuisine. At night, experience local clubs with live music and entertainment. Don’t forget the fireworks over the Falls every Friday and Sunday!

1. This information is to help tourists who want to spend a holiday in Canada.

2. You can see the Falls only on board a boat.

3. The first people who made their home there were Europeans.

4. You can taste only local food.

5. You can have a fun at night.

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

Many people traveling to Mexico pass through Mexico City, but most of them never actually visit Mexico’s capital city. If you asked those people why, they would probably say something about the air. Mexico City is very big, and air pollution is always a problem in big cities. But a lot of its inhabitants say that air pollution is less of a problem than in the past.

The historic center was built on what used to be an island in an ancient lake. It’s the oldest part of the city and includes the Zocalo, the largest public square in the Americans. There is an enormous Mexican flag in the center of the square.

The best way to see the most sights in the shortest time is to take the ‘Turibus’, a red, two-level bus similar to the double-decker buses in London, except that the top level has no roof. This means that you see the city better, but it also means that you need to wear lots of sun cream. A daily ticket allows you unlimited rides.

The amazing National Museum of Anthropology is located in the Chapultepec Park. It’s perhaps the most famous of the city’s museums and also one of the biggest. Other sights in the park include an amusement park, a forest with beautiful old trees and a large zoo with giant pandas.

Plaza Garibaldi always has street musicians playing traditional Mexican music. There’s also birria, a spicy goat meat soup sold at self-service restaurants in a large building just off the square.

Let's go to this exciting, beautiful city.

Read the text below to decide if each sentence is correct (True) or incorrect (False)._____________________________________________

1. Most travelers to Mexico spend a lot of time in Mexico City.

2. Mexico City is the capital of Mexico.

3. Air pollution is a problem in Mexico City.

4. The center of Mexico City used to be under water.

5. The Zocalo is the biggest public square in the world.

6. The Turibus is an efficient and convenient way to see the major sights.

7. Birria is a type of Mexican music.

True False

Read the text, answer the questions after the text

In the 1980s Julian Metcalfe and Sinclair Beecham spent a lot of time walking around London looking for a good, fast lunch. They never found one. So in 1986 they opened their own sandwich shop, Pret a Manger.

Today there are 150 Pret a Mangers in the UK and Hong Kong. Why have they become successful? Firstly, the food. Every night a van delivers fresh ingredients to the Pret a Manger stores. Early in the morning the chefs check the ingredients carefully, and then they make fresh sandwiches for the day. And these days it isn’t only sandwiches. Pret a Manger sells many different types of food; it even includes sushi on the menu. Quality and care is important for the company. For people who want to know exactly what they are eating, its website gives information about each dish. For example, if you want to know how many calories are in a ham and cheese sandwich, you can find out.

Pret a Manger also does good things for the community. At the end of the day, charities take any extra unwanted food and give it to homeless people.

McDonald's owns 33% of the company, and this is one reason why people all over the world now know this trade name.

1. When did the first Pret a Manger open?

a. 1980 b. 1986 c. 1990

2. How is the food made?

b. by chefs in the sandwich shops every day

c. by chefs the night before

3. What does Pret a Manger sell?

a. only sandwiches

b. only sandwiches and sushi

c. sandwiches, sushi and other types of food

4. How can you find information about the calories in each dish?

a. look on the website

b. ask the Pret a Manger workers

c. write to owners

5. What happens to the food that isn’t eaten?

a. they throw it away

b. it is recycled

c. charities take it

Read the text, answer the questions after the text

Going to the Theater

Many big towns in England have professional theaters now. There are about 200 professional theaters in Great Britain but London is the center of theatrical activity. There are over thirty important theaters in the West End. The Royal Opera House at Covent Garden is the home of opera and ballet.

Some theaters stage ‘classics’ and serious drama. A lot of English people are fond of light comedy and musicals. They are very popular in England.

The evening performances begin at 7.30 or 8.00 p.m. There is a rush hour at this time in the West End. A lot of people come out of nearby underground stations, taxis and private cars drop theater-goers outside the entrance to each theater. There is another rush hour when the performances are over.

It is certainly not easy to book a seat for a good play in London though the seats are not cheap. That is why some people prefer matinees (they start at 1-3 p.m.), but you will never see famous stars in these performances.

Complete the sentences based on the text.

1. There are over 200 professional theaters in Britain but London is

a________________.

2. The Royal Opera House is a_________.

3. A lot of English people are fond of________.

4. There is a rush hour in the West End_______.

5. It is not easy to book a seat for a good play in London, though___.

6. Some people prefer matinees but______.

a. not very serious performances.

b. theatrical center.

c. the tickets are very expensive.

d. after the working day.

e. they can’t see famous actors there.

f. place where you can see ballet and opera performances.

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

The exercise craze

Old and young, men and women are jogging, dancing, jumping up and down, bending and stretching. Exercise is in fashion. Everybody wants to be fit, feel good, look slim, and stay young.

It started with jogging. Millions of Americans put on their new colored sports shoes and fashionable jogging suits and ran through the parks or along the streets for half an hour a day. Then the joggers got the marathon craze. Popular marathons are now held everywhere. Lots of people want to see if they can run 42 kms and do it faster than everyone else. The big city marathons, in London and New York, are important sporting events. Television cameras and newspapers report them in detail. Some remarkable people took part in the marathons: seventy-five year old grandfathers and nine year old grandchildren, and even disabled in wheelchairs.

But marathons are not for everyone. Some prefer to get fit at home. For them, there’s a big choice of books, cassettes and video programmers with music and instructions. Sometimes the action is more like dancing than exercises. That’s why one big company calls it ‘Dancercise’.

Taking exercise is only one part of keeping fit. You've got to get slim too. Books and magazines about slimming are bestsellers and these days.

Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

1. Everybody is doing excercise, old and young, men and women.___

2. Millions of Americans ran through the parks or along the streets.

3. The big city marathons, in London and New York, are important

sporting events.___

4. Everyone takes part in marathons.____

5. People cannot get fit at home.____

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

Most British and American state schools provide their students with the option to eat lunch at school, but do they provide them with the option to eat well? Jamie Oliver is one of Britain's most popular stars. He’s a young cook whose TV and cookery programs are watched by

millions. In his last TV series, he tried to make British school dinner both eatable and healthy. He showed just how poor many school diets were. Many of them contained too many fats and carbohydrates and not enough vitamins. His campaign to get tastier and healthier school meals called Feed me better has caused politicians to take the problem seriously and promise to improve the quality of food on school dinner plates. Obesity is on the increase in all western countries. The biggest causes are bad diet and people being less active than they were in the past. Some people allege that schools also make the problem worse because they allow the sale of fizzy drinks and sugary snacks in school tuck shops and vending machines. Other people believe that advertising is to blame. UK politicians are promoting a voluntary agreement to stop junk food advertising at times when younger children watch the television.

1. Most teens don’t have healthy food at school______

2. Jamie Oliver is a famous school teacher._______

3. J. Oliver’s aim is to change meals at schools.______

4. Teens are getting fatter in western countries._______

5. School canteens don’t serve fast food.______

6. Adverts teach teens to eat fast food.______

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

The pack of biscuits

One night there was a woman at the airport who had to wait for several hours before catching her next flight. While she waited she bought a book and a pack of biscuits to spend the time. She looked for a place to sit and waited. She was deep into her book, when suddenly she realized that there was a young man sitting next to her who was stretching his hand, with no concern whatsoever, and grabbing the pack of cookies lying between them. He started to eat them one by one. Not wanting to make a fuss about it she decided to ignore him. The woman, slightly bothered, ate the cookies and watched the clock, while the young and shameless thief of biscuits was also finishing them. The woman started to get really angry at this point and thought, “If I wasn’t such a good and educated person, I would have given this daring man a black eye by now.” Every time she ate a biscuit, he had one too. The dialogue between their eyes continued and when only one biscuit was left, she wondered what was he going to do. Softly and with a nervous smile, the young man grabbed the last biscuit and broke it in two. He offered one half to the woman while he ate the other half. Briskly she took the biscuit and thought, “What an insolent man!” How uneducated! He didn’t even thank me!” She had never met anybody so fresh and sighed relieved to hear her flight announced. She grabbed her bags and went towards the boarding gate refusing to look back to where that insolent thief was. After boarding the plane and nicely seated, she looked for her book, which was nearly finished by now. While looking into her bag she was totally surprised to find her pack of biscuits nearly intact. "If my biscuits are here", she thought feeling terribly, "those others were his and he tried to share them with me. Too

late to apologize to the young man." She realized with pain, that it was her who had been insolent, uneducated and a thief, and not him!

Read the story and say if the statements are true (T), false (F) or not mentioned (NM).

1. A young woman at the airport had to wait for several hours before catching her next flight.

2. She bought a book and a pack of cookies.

3. She was reading the book, when suddenly she realized that a young man was eating her biscuits.

4. The woman and the man didn’t want to talk to each other.

5. The man shared the last cookie with the woman.

6. The woman apologized to the young man.
Match the word and the translation.
	A. intact
	b. realize
	With. impudent
	e. arrogant, arrogant
	f. lively, lively
	h. bustle, noise

Read the text, answer the questions after the text

The shoebox

A man and woman had been married for more than 60 years. They had shared everything. They had talked about everything. They had kept no secrets from each other except that the little: old woman had a shoebox in the top of her closet that she had cautioned her husband never to open or ask her about.

For all of these years, he had never thought about the box, but one day the little old woman got very sick and the doctor said she would not recover.

In trying to sort out their affairs, the little old man took down the shoebox and took it to his wife’s bedside. She agreed that it was time that he should know what was in the box. When he opened it, he found two knitted dolls and a stack of money totaling $95,000.

He asked her about the contents.

‘When we were to be married,’ she said, ‘my grandmother told me the secret of a happy marriage was to never argue. She told me that if I ever got angry with you, I should just keep quiet and knit a doll.’

The little old man was so moved; he had to fight back tears. Only two precious dolls were in the box. She had only been angry with him two times in all those years of living and loving. He almost burst with happiness.

‘Honey,’ he said, ‘that explains the dolls, but what about all of this money? Where did it come from?’

‘Oh,’ she said, ‘that’s the money I made from selling the dolls.’

Answer the questions.____________________

1. How long had a man and a woman been married?

2. Who had a little secret?

3. What kind of secret was it?

4. Why did the man take down the shoebox and take it to his wife’s bedside?

5. What was in the box?

6. What secret did grandmother tell me the woman?

7. Do you think the woman often got angry with her husband? Why?

List of used literature:

Vaulina Yu., UMK “Spotlight-9” (Yu. Vaulina, V. Evans), Education, 2010.

Verbitskaya M.V., Unified State Exam-2013. English language: thematic and standard exam options: 25 options / Ed. M.V. Verbitskaya. - M.: Publishing House "National Education", 2012. - + CD. - (USE-2013. FIPI-school)

Verbitskaya M.V., Unified State Exam-2013. English language: active training: completing tasks A, B, C / Ed. M.V. Verbitskaya. - M.: Publishing House "National Education", 2012. - (Unified State Examination-2013. FIPI-school)

Verbitskaya M.V., Unified State Exam-2013 English + CD / FIPI author-compiler: M.V. Verbitskaya – M.: Astrel, 2012

Klekovkina E., A textbook for preparing for the Unified State Exam in English. Malcolm Mann, Steve Taylore Knowles, Elena Klekovkina. Macmillan. 2010

Klekovkina E., Collection of tests for preparing for the Unified State Exam in English. E. Klekovkina, Malcolm Mann, Steve Taylore-Knowles. Macmillan. 2010

Solovova E.N., Methods of teaching foreign languages. Basic course. E.N. Solovova. 2008

Solovova E.N., State Exam.Maximiser. Preparation for Exams. E.N. Solovova, I.E. Solokova.Longnan. 2007

Trubaneva N.N., GIA-2013 Exam in a new form. English language. 9th grade / FIPI authors-compilers: Trubaneva N.N., Babushis E.E., Spichko N.A. - M.: Astrel, 2012

www.reshuege.ru, website “I will solve the Unified State Exam”

www.fipi.ru, website “Federal Institute of Pedagogical Measurements”.

Appendix No. 1

What to do with unfamiliar words?

Be prepared to encounter unfamiliar words, and that's good. If you didn’t find any new words in the book, then it’s better for you to take a book with a more difficult level or on a different topic.

It is advisable to look it up in the dictionary only those words without which the general meaning is not clear sentences or passage of text. If you look in the dictionary for every unfamiliar word, then reading will turn from pleasure into torture.

Reading a paper book with with a simple pencil in hand, underline unfamiliar words. Only after reading a certain number of pages write them down in a notebook, dictionary notebook, cards and look up the meanings in the English dictionary.

Be sure to pay attention to examples of use in specific sentences and idioms with this word.

When you write down an unfamiliar word or idiom, be sure to write down the entire proposal, to remember word in the context.

Determine the parts of speech and members of the sentence in it in order to remember which words and in what sequence are used with this or that word.

Appendix No. 2

Keys

2-T 3-F 4-F 5-F 6-T 7-

3 -e 4-a 5 -f 6-b

1 - e 2 - c 3-a 4-h 5-f 6-d 7-g 8-b

1 - c 2 -e 3 - b 4-d 5-a

l-b 2-f 3-a 4-d 5-c 6-e

1 - c 2 -a 3-d 4-b

4 - c 5 - f 6 - e 7

3. an old woman had a shoebox in the top of her closet

4. the little old woman got very sick and the doctor said she would not recover.

5. two knitted dolls and $95,000

6. the secret of a happy marriage / She told that if the woman ever got angry with her husband, she should just keep quiet and knit a doll."

7. Yes, she made $95,000 from selling the dolls.

[Key: 1. easily learned, 2. really valuable, 3. rarely missed, 4. quickly growing, 5. surprisingly successful, 6. sadly disappearing, 7. extremely dangerous]

[Key: 1. working out, 2. top, 3. basics, 4. online, 5. rapidly, 6. explosion, 7. phenomenon, 8. hit, 9. dominated, 10. got the better of, 11. circles, 12. die out, 13. pastimes, 14. dated from, 15. unique, 16. average]

[Key: 1. got the better of, 2. unique, 3. online, 4. basics, 5. average, 6. hit]

[Key: 1. A, 2. G, 3. F, 4. E, 5. C, 6. D]

[Key: 1. F, 2. B, 3. A, 4. C, 5. G, 6. E, 7 D]

[Key: a. 4, b. 6, p. 5, d. 2, e. 1, f. 3]

[Key: 1. C, 2. B, 3. G, 4. E, 5. A, 6. D]

What should be taken into account when completing tasks B11 - B16 (Word formation)?

When performing this task, check word formation skills– knowledge of the composition of the word and the main method of word formation – affixations, i.e. forming words using prefixes and suffixes.

• After reading the sentence, translate it into Russian and determine what part of speech is missing. This can be a noun, verb, verbal forms (, participle), adjective, adverb, pronoun, numeral. For example, if it is a noun, then the gap may be preceded by an article or an article or an adjective, if it is an adverb, then it usually comes after the verb, etc.
• Determine whether the word has negative or positive value. In the case of a negative meaning, you need to choose a negative prefix or suffix that matches the word.
• Next, you need to change the word on the right and corresponding to the gap into the desired form. For example, in the sentence “It was a large-scale, program-controlled machine which could make a very complex _____. CALCULATE » the missing word is a noun, since the gap is preceded by an adjective with an article. The indefinite article indicates that the missing word - a singular noun - « calculation » .
• After completing the tasks, read the entire text again to make sure the forms are correct. Transfer your answers to the Answer Sheet.

Take note!!!

To prepare for tasks B11-B16, repeat the prefixes and suffixes that are used to form various parts of speech. You can use the following resources:

Be sure to complete the exercises on word formation rules in your school textbook. You can also use online resources:

What is the strategy for completing tasks A22–A28 (advanced level)?

Tasks A22-A28 refer to higher level tasks. When performing them, knowledge of English vocabulary is tested, with an emphasis on word combinability. You are offered a text with gaps; for each missing word is presented multiple choice of four lexical items.

• Read the entire text to understand its general content. Look at the possible fill-in-the-blank words.

For example, for a sentence « She was too excited to do any _______ that morning » The following words are suggested to you: A) homework ; B) household ; IN) housework ; G) housewife . We immediately rule out options B) And G): household - household, house, household; housewife – household . To choose the correct option from the remaining two, you need to know the meaning of the words: A) homework And IN) housework . Homework – homework, lessons, homework. Housework - housework, housework. Therefore, the correct option is housework : She was too excited to do any housework .

• After completing the tasks, transfer your answers to the Answer Form.

Take note!!!

Of course, to complete tasks of increased complexity you need to have good vocabulary. Need to know lexical compatibility words

To successfully complete tasks of increased complexity, you should repeat sections of the school textbook that present thematic vocabulary, phrasal verbs, set phrases, and prepositional phrases. You need to practice doing multiple choice exercises. To do this, you can also refer to online resources:

You should also have good spelling skills. Remember that if a spelling error is made, the answer option will not be counted. How to learn to write without spelling errors? The best way is to write dictations. For example, you can memorize a fragment of text from an English textbook, and then reproduce it in written form, speaking it out loud. Check the written text with the original.

Preparation for the OGE and the Unified State Exam

Secondary general education

English language

We analyze the Unified State Examination in English: section “Grammar”

We analyze the tasks of the “Grammar” part together with English teachers, build reasoning and analyze the answers.

Jalolova Svetlana Anatolyevna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Winner of the competitive selection for the Moscow Grant in the field of education in 2010. Senior expert of the State Examination Agency Unified State Exam in English. Winner of the All-Russian Olympiad of English Language Teachers “Profi-Kray” 2015. Certificate of honor from the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation 2014, Certificate of winner of the competition for the best teachers of the Russian Federation 2007, Diploma of the winner of the competition for the Moscow Grant 2010. Work experience - 23 years.

Nedashkovskaya Natalya Mikhailovna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Winner of the PNPO 2007. Winner of the competitive selection for the Moscow Grant in the field of education 2010. GIA OGE expert in English. Conducted a pedagogical examination of educational publications at the Russian Academy of Education 2015-2016. Certificate of Honor from the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation 2013, Certificate of the winner of the competition for the best teachers of the Russian Federation 2007, Diploma of the winner of the competition for the Moscow Grant 2010. Work experience - 35 years.
Podvigina Marina Mikhailovna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Winner of PNPO 2008. Winner of the competitive selection for the Moscow Grant in the field of education 2010. Senior expert of the State Examination Agency Unified State Exam in English. Conducted a pedagogical examination of educational publications at the Russian Academy of Education 2015-2016. Certificate of honor from the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation 2015, Certificate of winner of the competition for the best teachers of the Russian Federation 2008, Diploma of the winner of the competition for the Moscow Grant 2010. Work experience - 23 years.

Trofimova Elena Anatolyevna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Senior expert of the State Examination Agency Unified State Exam in English. Certificate of honor from the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation in 2013. Work experience - 15 years.

Exercise 1

Methodical hint

This task tests your knowledge of English grammar. Let's pay attention to those parts of speech that need to be transformed. It is important that when changing the form of a word, the part of speech does not change! To the right of the text any of the six parts of speech can be given. These are a noun, an adverb, a cardinal number, a personal pronoun and a verb. When completing this task, it is necessary to take into account what grammatical forms these parts of speech have. A singular noun takes a plural form (here it is necessary, in addition to the general rule for forming the plural of nouns, to remember all the exceptions and spelling features of the plural forms of nouns). A cardinal number becomes an ordinal number (note the complex formation and spelling of some numerals). Adjectives and adverbs have comparative or superlative degrees (there are also some cases to remember here). A personal pronoun can become possessive (short or long form), objective or reflexive. As for the verb, remember that it can be in finite or impersonal form (for example, Present Participle or Past Participle). If the verb must be used in the personal form, then it is necessary to determine in what voice the verb should be (active or passive) and in what grammatical tense. To correctly determine grammatical tense, it is necessary, firstly, to determine in what existential (life) tense the sentence or situation is presented. To do this, we look at the verbs around the gap and other tense indicators to determine whether the story refers to the present, past or future. Having determined the time, we must determine the temporal form. To do this, we look for clue words or indicators of grammatical tenses in the sentence (for example, every day, usually - indicators of the Present Simple, since, for, yet - indicators of the Present Perfect. Also, a time line often helps, which clearly shows what sequence exists between actions and events.

In addition, the verb can be part of a conditional sentence (there are four, starting with zero, types of conditional sentences, each of which has verbs in certain forms) or a sentence beginning with I wish or If only.

Don’t forget to also pay attention to those words that come immediately before the gap - do not forget that there are a number of verbs, adjectives, phrases and constructions after which it is necessary to use an infinitive with or without the particle to or gerund (for example, fancy going, want to go, make symbol do smith, There"s" no point in doing smith...).

Let's get started with the test task.

19. Around 1350, art, learning, and science started to flourish in some parts of Europe. To many people, this was the beginning of a new golden age. This period was not the _________ golden age in Europe.
20. Greece ________ one 1,900 years before. About 500 years later, Roman civilization had been at its height.
21. Because this new golden age was something like _________ Greek and Roman periods, it is called the Renaissance. The word "renaissance" means "rebirth." Many Greek and Roman values ​​were reborn in the Renaissance.
22. Windsor is a small town not far from London which is about a thousand years old. It became the setting for The Merry ___________ of Windsor,
24. What the town is famous for today is Windsor Castle, the Royal residence. From a plane Windsor Castle with its big round tower looks like a child's dream of a sand castle. Sadly, in 1992 fire ___________ a large part of the castle buildings.
25. Since then the Castle ________________. It required a lot of money. To pay for it, it was decided to open Buckingham Palace to the public at selected times of the year and to charge visitors a fee.

Reasoning

We read the presented texts (this can be one text) in order to have a general idea of ​​what we are talking about. Next we fill in the blanks.

Number 19. The cardinal number is written as one, therefore the only possible form is the ordinal number first. Number 20. The verb is presented. We conduct a blitz analysis: liability or asset? - asset. This is a personal form, since the subject Greece does not have a predicate, which means the full form of the verb is needed. This is not a conditional sentence, since there are no corresponding words if, unless, etc. We define the existential time - past (Past), since there are words 1900 years before, had been. Now we determine the grammatical tense (tense) - look at the time in the previous sentence - was not, in the sentence with a gap there is the phrase 1900 years before - draw a time line, set the point was not in the past, determine where - to the left or to the right the point 1900 will be located years before. It's on the right. Actions go one after another in the past, which means the verb will be in the Past Perfect tense, showing that the action has already happened and ended before the verb was not. The next sentence confirms the correctness of our choice - had been at its height also before the verb was not. Therefore, we put the verb have in the form (Past Perfect - had had).
Number 21. The adjective early is used here (this is precisely an adjective, since it is a definition for the words Greek and Roman periods), and this adjective must be put in the comparative degree, since the period is compared only with the Greek and Roman periods, and not with all periods of history.
Number 22. The noun wife is written in the singular. The only possible transformation is the plural form wives(a noun ending in -f, -fe in the plural changes f to ves).
Number 23. The personal pronoun he is given. This pronoun is not a subject in the text, but is an object; accordingly, it is necessary to use an object pronoun him.
Number 24. Given verb. We use a familiar algorithm for completing the task: asset or liability? - An asset, because the subject fire can destroy the building. This is not a conditional. The subject does not have a predicate, which means it is a verb in its personal form. The existential time is past, the year indicated here is 1992. And this year also indicates that it is Past Simple (an action performed at a certain point in time in the past). Correct form destroyed.
Number 25. The verb repair is given. Active or passive? - Passive, the castle cannot be repaired by anyone, but it can be repaired. Not a conditional mood, a personal form, because it is a predicate. In the previous and subsequent sentences, the verbs are in the past tense, but in the gap sentence itself there is since then, which is an indicator of perfect tenses. To decide whether to use Present Perfect or Past Perfect, we draw a time line. We put an end to the past destroyed. Would the correct form of the verb repair appear to the right or left of the verb destroyed? - On right. So we put the verb in the Present Perfect - has been repaired.

Thus, the answers to tasks 19 to 25 look like this: 19 - first, 20 - had had, 21 - earlier, 22 - wives, 23 - him, 24 - destroyed, 25 - has been repaired.

Task 2. Read the text below. Form words with the same root from the words printed in capital letters at the end of the lines marked with numbers 26–31, so that they grammatically and lexically correspond to the content of the text. Fill in the blanks with the given words. Each gap corresponds to a separate task from group 26–31.

Methodical hint

This part tests word formation skills. The task in the specification is formulated as “tasks for filling in gaps in a connected text by forming a related word from the proposed reference word” using suffixes and prefixes. The key to success in completing this task is two factors - the correct identification of the part of speech that needs to be inserted instead of the gap, and knowledge of word-forming suffixes and prefixes. We read the text, paying attention to the words before the gaps and following it. We determine the missing part of speech, as well as whether the missing word has a negative or affirmative connotation.

Australia

26. In 1770, James Cook landed on the east coast of Australia and claimed the land for Great Britain. For many years after that, only a few people came to Australia___________. It was too far from Europe to attract many outsiders.
27. The first settlers were ______________. They were not asked if they wanted to come.
28. Moving to Australia was part of their ___________________. In time they were joined by more willing settlers who wanted to find adventure and a better life.
29. Like the settlement of the United States, much of Australia’s history deals with the push west. There was, however, one big In their drive westward, the Australians found no rich river valleys or fertile plains. Instead, they found only dry empty land they called the outback.
30. The outback was _________________ any place the earlyrs settled had ever seen. For months there would be no rain at all. Then suddenly the skies would open up. Within hours, rivers overflowed their banks. Yet only a few days later the land would be as dry as ever.
31. Few settlers were willing to risk their life in such a harsh land. Then gold was ___________ there in 1852. Thousands flocked to the outback of Australia to make their fortunes.

Reasoning

Number 26. Only a few people came to Australia how? - an adverb that modifies the verb came. The following sentence contains an explanation of why this happened this way.
Number 27. The first settlers were .......... In this situation, the verb were can be followed by either an adjective specifying what they were like, or a noun indicating who these settlers were (if this choice is correct, then the noun will be stand in the plural based on the word settlers in the plural and the word were. The following sentence does not exclude either of these options, so we leave both of these options for now.
Number 28. Moving to Australia was part of their....... We see the missing part of the phrase with the preposition of, in which there must be nouns before and after the preposition, and the gap is preceded by the short possessive pronoun their, which modifies the noun. Therefore, the missing part of speech is a noun.
Number 29. There was, however, one big...... After the construction There was there must be a noun, which is confirmed by the presence before the omission of a numeral and an adjective, defining the same part of speech. Therefore, the missing word is a singular noun (the number indicator is the word one).
Number 30. The outback was ...............any place the early settlers had ever seen. After was there can be either a participle or an adjective or a noun. Since the noun is already there (place), therefore, the missing part of speech is the adjective.
Number 31. Then gold was.........there in 1852. The situation is similar to number 30. Based on the meaning of the entire sentence, we assume that most likely this will be a past participle, determining what happened to gold in 1852.

Having noted in the margins of the KIM, next to each gap, the parts of speech we have identified, we open the words themselves on the right.

Number 26- adverb, which means you need to substitute the suffix -ly, we get the word willingly. We re-read the paragraph with the inserted word - the meaning is preserved.
Number 27- the word prison suggests that we need a noun that specifies who the first settlers were. The next sentence confirms this. Forming a noun prisoners in plural.
Number 28- we form a collective noun from the word punish punishment, which completes the sentence, making it a logical extension of the idea expressed in the previous two sentences.
Number 29- we form the noun difference from the word differ. We re-read the paragraph, the formed noun fits perfectly into it, since the paragraph talks about the difference in the development of the West in the United States and Australia.
Number 30- we are asked to replace the word like, which in itself is already an adjective. Consequently, the part of speech is already defined by itself; we must only, preserving this part of speech, add a negative prefix in order to form a new word suitable in meaning - unlike.
Number 31- we are given the word covered, which is already a participle. Therefore, as in the previous case, we need a negative prefix. In the case of covered there can be two of them: dis- and un- . Uncovered - slightly opened, removed the cover.... Discovered - discovered, discovered something new. In this context, the second meaning is appropriate. Therefore, the correct word is discovered.

Answers: 26 - willingly, 27 - prisoners, 28 - punishment, 29 - difference, 30 - unlike, 31 - discovered.

3. Task numbers 32-38, for which the maximum number of points is given -7 (1 point for each correct answer), formulated as follows:

Methodical hint

The third task (32-38) of the section offers a connected text with gaps and 4 options for filling them in (1-4), of which only one is correct. This task tests the ability to use vocabulary in a communicative context, taking into account the specifics:

• forms of one word and words that are similar in spelling and sound;
• meanings of one word and its synonyms, antonyms, homonyms;
• norms of lexical compatibility adopted in the English language, etc.

To effectively complete this task you should:
1. Look through the entire text with gaps, try to understand its content
2. Read the entire passage carefully, but pay special attention to the sentence with the missing word
3. Try to predict the missing word based on the context surrounding the missing word.
4. Study all the proposed answer options, choose the most appropriate one, taking into account the meaning and norms of lexical compatibility of the missing word. Particular attention should be paid to synonyms (they may have different shades of meaning, they may have differences in control and compatibility with other words), as well as to consonant words or words with similar spelling (they may have different meanings).
5. Read the sentence with the gap again, make sure that the chosen word is the most correct one to fill in the gap. Determine why the other words are not appropriate.
6. If you cannot consciously choose any of the proposed options, choose the answer intuitively, and do not leave the task unanswered.

For example, given text with gaps:

Growing up with Joey

I enjoy thinking of my childhood. But when I think of my home town where I grew up, all that I 32 __________ to remember is dust. I remember the brown, crumbly dust of late summer that gets into the eyes and makes them water. It is the kind of dust that gets into the throat and between the 33 _________ of bare brown feet. I don"t know why I should remember only the dust. There must have been green laws and paved streets under leafy shady trees somewhere in town. One day returns to me clearly for some reason. I was resting under the great oak tree in the yard. I was deep in thought which I have now forgotten except that it involved some secret. Joey and a bunch of kids were bored now with the old tire hanging from an oak limb. It had 34 _______ them busy for a while. “Hey, Lizabeth,” Joey yelled. He never talked when he could yell. “He, Lizabeth, let’s go somewhere.” I came back from the thoughts of my private world. “Where at, Joey?” The truth was that we were becoming tired 35 ____ the empty summer days. “Let's go over to Miss Lottie's,” said Joey. The idea caught on at once. Annoying Miss Lottie was always fun. I was still child 3 6 ___________ to run along with the group. We went over old fences and through bushes that tore our 3 7 ________ ripped clothes, back to where Miss Lottie lived. I think now that we must have looked partly funny and partly sad. There were six of us, all different ages, dressed in only one thing 38 ________. The girls wore faded dresses that were too long or too short. The boys wore patched pants. A little cloud of dust followed our thin legs and bare feet as we tramped over the dusty ground.

32. 1) seem, 2) think, 3) look, 4) believe

Answer: 1, since the other options do not make sense.

33. 1) fingers, 2) thumbs, 3) toys, 4) pinkies

Answer: 3 , since we are talking about a foot, toes - toes.

34. 1) got, 2) preserved, 3) held, 4) kept

Answer:4 , combinability of words - keep busy.

35. 1) from, 2) for, 3) of, 4) by

Answer:3 , the verb to be tired is used in pairs with the preposition of

36. 1) yet, 2) enough, 3) so far, 4) after all

Answer:2 , option 1 is used in questions or negative sentences, option 4 usually takes place at the end of a sentence, option 3 is combined with perfect tenses.

37. 1) before, 2) already, 3) earlier, 4) sooner

Answer:2 , since already is used with something that happened earlier and has meaning at the time of speech.

38. 1) everyone, 2) anyone, 3) all, 4) each

Answer: 4, according to the meaning of the sentence, the meaning “each” is suitable - each.